Adult patients with moderate-to-severe PSO who start treatment with anti-TNF (e.g. adalimumab, certolizumab, biosimilars). Adalimumab is a monoclonal antibody used to treat moderate-to-severe rheumatoid arthritis, plaque psoriasis, and hidradenitis suppurativa. It inhibits TNF, reducing inflammation. Common adverse events include infections, injection site reactions, headache, and musculoskeletal pain. For plaque psoriasis, the recommended dose is 80 mg at week 0, followed by 40 mg biweekly. Certolizumab, another TNF inhibitor, treats plaque psoriasis with an initial dose of 400 mg at weeks 0, 2, and 4, followed by 200 mg biweekly (or 400 mg if efficacy is insufficient).

Adult patients with moderate-to-severe PSO who start treatment with anti-IL 23 (e.g. guselkumab, risankizumab, tildrakizumab). Guselkumab (Tremfya) is an anti-IL-23 monoclonal antibody approved for moderate-to-severe plaque psoriasis in patients eligible for systemic treatment. It blocks IL-23 interaction with its receptor, reducing pro-inflammatory cytokines. The recommended dose is 100 mg at weeks 0 and 4, followed by 100 mg every 8 weeks. Common adverse reactions include respiratory tract infections and diarrhea. Risankizumab (Skyrizi) also targets IL-23, with a dosing regimen of 150 mg at weeks 0 and 4, followed by 150 mg every 12 weeks. Common AEs include respiratory infections, injection site reactions, tinea, headache, itching, fatigue, and rash. Tildrakizumab (Ilumetri) targets the IL-23 p19 subunit. It is dosed at 100 mg at weeks 0 and 4, followed by 100 mg every 12 weeks. Common AEs include respiratory infections, injection site pain, nausea, diarrhea, and headache.

Adult patients with moderate-to-severe PSO who start treatment with anti IL-17 (e.g. secukinumab, ixekizumab, brodalumab, bimekizumab). Secukinumab is an IL-17A inhibitor for psoriasis and hidradenitis suppurativa. It blocks IL-17 interaction with its receptor. The dose is 300 mg at weeks 0, 1, 2, 3, and 4, followed by 300 mg monthly. Common AEs include respiratory infections, nasopharyngitis, oral herpes, diarrhea, headache, and fatigue. Ixekizumab, another IL-17A inhibitor, is dosed at 160 mg in week 0, followed by 80 mg every 2 weeks for 10 weeks, then 80 mg every 4 weeks. AEs include injection site reactions and respiratory infections. Brodalumab binds IL-17RA, with a dose of 210 mg at weeks 0, 1, and 2, followed by biweekly doses. Common AEs include infections, tinea, headache, and fatigue. Bimekizumab inhibits IL-17A, IL-17F, and IL-17A/F, dosed at 320 mg at weeks 0, 4, 8, 12, and 16, followed by 320 mg every 8 weeks. Common AEs include infections, candidiasis, and fatigue.

Adult patients with moderate-to-severe PSO who start treatment with TYK2 inhibitor (e.g. deucravacitinib). Deucravacitinib is a selective TYK2 inhibitor used for moderate-to-severe plaque psoriasis. It selectively binds the allosteric pocket of TYK2, leading to high selectivity in inhibition. Inhibiting TYK2 interferes with cytokine signaling involved in plaque psoriasis. The recommended dose is 6 mg daily. The most common adverse reactions occurring in ≥1% of patients are (viral) upper respiratory infections, nasopharyngitis, pharyngitis, sinusitis, herpes simplex, oral ulceration, acneiform rash, folliculitis, and increased creatine kinase levels.

Adult patients with moderate-to-severe HS who start treatment with anti-TNF (e.g. adalimumab, certolizumab, biosimilars). Adalimumab is a monoclonal antibody used to treat moderate-to-severe rheumatoid arthritis, plaque psoriasis, and hidradenitis suppurativa. It inhibits TNF, reducing inflammation. Common adverse events include infections, injection site reactions, headache, and musculoskeletal pain. For hidradenitis suppurativa, the dose starts with 160 mg at week 0, then 80 mg at week 2, followed by 40 mg weekly or 80 mg biweekly.

Adult patients with moderate-to-severe HS who start treatment with anti-IL 17, i.e. secukinumab, bimekizumab* (*once approved and reimbursed in the Netherlands). Secukinumab is an IL-17A inhibitor for psoriasis and hidradenitis suppurativa. It blocks IL-17 interaction with its receptor. The dose is 300 mg at weeks 0, 1, 2, 3, and 4, followed by 300 mg monthly. Common AEs include respiratory infections, nasopharyngitis, oral herpes, diarrhea, headache, and fatigue. Ixekizumab, another IL-17A inhibitor, is dosed at 160 mg in week 0, followed by 80 mg every 2 weeks for 10 weeks, then 80 mg every 4 weeks. AEs include injection site reactions and respiratory infections. Brodalumab binds IL-17RA, with a dose of 210 mg at weeks 0, 1, and 2, followed by biweekly doses. Common AEs include infections, tinea, headache, and fatigue. Bimekizumab inhibits IL-17A, IL-17F, and IL-17A/F, dosed at 320 mg at weeks 0, 4, 8, 12, and 16, followed by 320 mg every 8 weeks. Common AEs include infections, cand

Adult patients with stage 1 or 2 cutaneous T-cell lymphoma subtype mycosis fungoides who start treatment with topical chlormethine. Chlormethine (CL) gel 0.016% (Ledaga®) is an FDA-approved orphan drug (since August 23, 2013) for stage IA and IB mycosis fungoides in patients previously treated with skin-directed therapy. It forms DNA interstrand crosslinks, blocking replication and transcription, leading to cell death in rapidly dividing cells.

CL gel showed no systemic absorption up to 6 hours post-application and after 1 month (Lessin et al., 2013). In a follow-up study with CL gel 0.04%, no detectable drug or degradation product was found in blood up to 6 months (Kim et al., 2014).

In a randomized trial (n=128, median 52 weeks), 61.7% had skin-related side effects, mainly dermatitis (54.7%), pruritus (20.3%), infections (11.7%), ulceration/blistering (6.3%), and hyperpigmentation (5.5%). Hypersensitivity occurred in 2.3%. No systemic side effects or overdoses were reported.

Adult patients with stage 1 or 2 cutaneous T-cell lymphoma subtype mycosis fungoides who start treatment with topical corticosteroids. Topical corticosteroids are anti-inflammatory medications that are used in the treatment of various inflammatory skin diseases, such as cutaneous T-cell lymphoma subtype mycosis fungoides. Corticosteroids inhibit the release of inflammation factors and therefore, the inflammatory response is reduced. Topical corticosteroids are divided in four subclasses, based on their potency. Topical corticosteroids are generally described as highly effective in the treatment of certain skin diseases. The recommended dose of topical corticosteroids depends on the subclass and specific therapy, however, generally 2 applications per day are recommended over a limited time period. AE's as skin thinning, and increased risk of infections are often reported.

Adult patients with stage 1 or 2 cutaneous T-cell lymphoma subtype mycosis fungoides who start treatment with PUVA/UV-B. Psoralen UV-A (PUVA) is used to treat cutaneous T-cell lymphoma subtype mycosis fungoides. It combines UVA light with psoralen, a drug that makes the skin more sensitive to light. Typically, 2-3 treatments per week are required for effectiveness. Common side effects include nausea (due to psoralen) and skin redness (from UVA). Long-term use may lead to premature skin aging.

UV-B light therapy, including narrowband UVB, is also used for (folliculotropic) mycosis fungoides. It uses short-wave UVB light that penetrates the outer skin layers. While generally safer than older phototherapies, long-term treatment may increase the risk of skin cancer.

Adult patients with moderate to severe CSU who start (add-on) treatment with anti-IgE. Omalizumab is a highly effective treatment for chronic spontaneous urticaria. It is a recombinant humanized IgG1 monoclonal antibody targeting immunoglobulin E (IgE). Experimental models in cynomolgus monkeys and mice have been used to study its pharmacokinetics. The mouse model focused on antigen-independent behavior in the absence of IgE binding. After subcutaneous administration, bioavailability was 90% in mice and 64-104% in monkeys. Peak concentrations occurred around day 5, with a half-life of approximately 7 days. Clearance of omalizumab:IgE complexes was significantly slower than that of free IgE, leading to up to 20-fold increases in total IgE levels.

In use since 2004, omalizumab has a well-established safety profile in asthma, CSU, and CRSwNP, both in trials and post-marketing. The most common AEs in CSU include nasopharyngitis, headache, sinusitis, and injection site reactions.

Adult patients with moderate to severe CSU who start (add-on) treatment with cyclosporin A. Cyclosporine A (CsA) is a lipophilic, cyclic undecapeptide produced by fungi, acting as a potent immunosuppressant by inhibiting T-cell receptor activation. It's prescribed twice daily at 3-5 mg/kg/day, starting with 3 mg/kg/day and increasing based on clinical response. CsA inhibits cytokine production, especially interleukin-2 (IL-2). In the Netherlands, CsA is the only oral immunosuppressant for moderate-to-severe atopic dermatitis (AD). CsA has shown superiority over placebo in numerous trials, and is the treatment of choice for severe AD. Common adverse reactions include renal dysfunction, tremor, hirsutism, hypertension, diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting. Contraindications include hypersensitivity and certain drug combinations. Regular monitoring is necessary due to potential risks like acute infections, hepatotoxicity, and renal toxicity.

Adult patients with moderate to severe CSU who start (add-on) treatment with anti-BTK*. Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK) inhibitors block BTK, a key enzyme in B-cell receptor signaling that controls B-cell activation and survival. By inhibiting BTK, these drugs disrupt B-cell function and pathological immune responses.

They are mainly approved for B-cell cancers like chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) and mantle cell lymphoma (MCL). Common BTK inhibitors include ibrutinib, acalabrutinib, and zanubrutinib, which are orally administered and generally well tolerated.

BTK also plays a crucial role in mast cell and basophil activation via the FcεRI receptor, central to chronic spontaneous urticaria (CSU). Inhibiting BTK blocks mast cell degranulation and histamine release, reducing symptoms in CSU patients, especially those unresponsive to antihistamines or omalizumab. This makes BTK inhibitors promising oral therapies for CSU.

*once approved and reimbursed in the Netherlands

Adult patients with mild to severe chronic lupus erythematosus (CLE) who start treatment with topical corticosteroids. Topical corticosteroids are anti-inflammatory medications that are used in the treatment of various inflammatory skin diseases, such as cutaneous T-cell lymphoma subtype mycosis fungoides. Corticosteroids inhibit the release of inflammation factors and therefore, the inflammatory response is reduced. Topical corticosteroids are divided in four subclasses, based on their potency. Topical corticosteroids are generally described as highly effective in the treatment of certain skin diseases. The recommended dose of topical corticosteroids depends on the subclass and specific therapy, however, generally 2 applications per day are recommended over a limited time period. AE's as skin thinning, and increased risk of infections are often reported.

Adult patients with mild to severe chronic lupus erythematosus (CLE) who start treatment with HCQ. HCQ is an antimalarial used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and cutaneous lupus. It accumulates in lysosomes, raising pH, and inhibits TLR3, TLR7, and TLR9, reducing plasmacytoid dendritic cell activation and lowering IFNα and TNF production. HCQ also suppresses T and B cell activation, reducing Th1, Th2, and Th17 responses, while sparing cytotoxic T cells.

Orally, HCQ has 74% bioavailability, a Tmax of 2-4.5 hours, and a plasma half-life around 32 days. It concentrates in blood cells and tissues like lungs, kidneys, and eyes. Metabolized in the liver, it is cleared by the kidneys.

Common side effects are nausea, abdominal pain, and diarrhea, often reduced by taking HCQ with food. Risks include hypoglycemia, retinopathy, cardiac toxicity, and blood count changes, requiring regular monitoring.

Adult patients with mild to severe chronic lupus erythematosus (CLE) who start treatment with methotrexate. Methotrexate (MTX), introduced in 1947 for cancer, has been used since the 1980s at low doses to treat rheumatoid arthritis (RA). It is given once weekly, orally or by injection (s.c., i.m., i.v.).

MTX's anti-inflammatory effects involve inhibition of nucleotide synthesis, NF-κB signaling, JAK-STAT pathway modulation, nitric oxide production, adenosine release, and regulation of certain RNAs.

Orally, MTX has ~70% bioavailability with peak levels in 1-2 hours; subcutaneous administration offers higher and faster plasma levels. About 50% binds serum proteins and accumulates in liver, kidneys, and spleen as polyglutamates. The half-life varies from 3 to 17 hours.

Common side effects include nausea, fatigue, mouth sores, liver enzyme elevation, and leukopenia. Early detection allows reversibility; patients are closely monitored. Folic acid is recommended to reduce adverse events.

The Validated Investigator Global Assessment for Atopic Dermatitis (vIGA-AD) is a clinician-reported outcome measure used to assess the overall severity of atopic dermatitis based on clinical signs. The vIGA-AD score ranges from 0 to 4, with higher scores indicating more severe disease. A score of 0 corresponds to "clear" skin, while a score of 4 represents "severe" disease.

The vIGA-AD score will be assessed exclusively in patients diagnosed with atopic dermatitis.

The Cutaneous Lupus Erythematosus Disease Area and Severity Index - Activity Score (CLASI-A) is a validated clinician-reported outcome measure used to assess the degree of inflammatory disease activity in patients with cutaneous lupus erythematosus. The CLASI-A score ranges from 0 to 70, with higher scores indicating more active and severe skin involvement. A score of 0 reflects no disease activity, while a score of 70 indicates the most severe activity.

The CLASI-A score will be assessed exclusively in patients diagnosed with cutaneous lupus erythematosus.

The Total Sum Score is a clinician-reported composite outcome measure used to quantify overall disease activity in patients with cutaneous lupus erythematosus and psoriasis. It is calculated by summing the individual scores of predefined clinical signs across affected body regions. The score range depends on the number and weighting of assessed parameters, with higher scores indicating more severe disease activity. A score of 0 reflects no observable disease, whereas the maximum score represents the most severe manifestation based on the scoring algorithm.

The Total Sum Score will be assessed only in patients diagnosed with cutaneous lupus erythematosus and plaque psoriasis.

The Cutaneous Lupus Activity-Investigator Global Assessment (CLA-IGA) is a validated clinician-reported outcome measure used to assess overall disease activity in patients with cutaneous lupus erythematosus. The scale ranges from 0 to 5, where 0 indicates no disease activity and 5 reflects very severe disease. Higher scores correspond to greater clinical severity.

The CLA-IGA will be assessed only in patients with cutaneous lupus erythematosus.

The International Hidradenitis Suppurativa Severity Score System (IHS4) is a validated clinician-reported outcome measure used to assess the severity of hidradenitis suppurativa. The total IHS4 score is calculated based on the number of nodules, abscesses, and draining tunnels, with no fixed maximum but typically ranging from 0 upwards. Higher scores indicate more severe disease activity, while a score of 0 reflects no active disease.

The IHS4 score will be assessed only in patients with hidradenitis suppurativa.

The Modified Severity-Weighted Assessment Tool (mSWAT) is a clinician-reported outcome measure used to assess the severity and extent of Cutaneous T-Cell Lymphoma, specifically Mycosis Fungoides. The total mSWAT score ranges from 0 to 360, with higher scores indicating more severe disease involvement. A score of 0 reflects no active disease.

The mSWAT score will be assessed only in patients with Cutaneous T-Cell Lymphoma subtype Mycosis Fungoides.

The Cutaneous Lymphoma Activity and Severity Index (CAILS) is a clinician-reported outcome measure used to evaluate disease activity and severity in patients with Cutaneous T-Cell Lymphoma, including Mycosis Fungoides. The total CAILS score ranges from 0 to 70, with higher scores indicating greater disease severity. A score of 0 corresponds to no active disease.

The CAILS score will be assessed only in patients with Cutaneous T-Cell Lymphoma subtype Mycosis Fungoides.

The Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) is a validated clinician-reported outcome measure used to assess the severity and extent of plaque psoriasis. The total PASI score ranges from 0 to 72, with higher scores indicating more severe disease. A score of 0 represents no psoriasis involvement.

The PASI score will be assessed only in patients with psoriasis.

The Physician Global Assessment (PGA) for Psoriasis is a validated clinician-reported outcome measure used to assess the overall severity of psoriasis, including all clinical forms. The PGA score typically ranges from 0 to 6, depending on the specific scale used, with higher scores indicating more severe disease. A score of 0 represents clear skin with no signs of psoriasis.

The PGA score will be assessed only in patients with psoriasis.

The Body Surface Area (BSA) is a clinician-reported measure used to estimate the percentage of the body affected by psoriasis. The score ranges from 0% to 100%, where 0% indicates no skin involvement and 100% represents the entire body surface affected. Higher BSA values correspond to more extensive disease.

The BSA will be assessed only in patients with psoriasis.

The Psoriasis Area and Severity Index - High Discrimination (PASI-HD) is a clinician-reported outcome measure designed to provide enhanced sensitivity and precision in assessing the severity and extent of psoriasis. The score ranges from 0 to 72, where 0 indicates no disease activity and 72 represents the most severe possible presentation. Higher scores correspond to more severe disease.

The PASI-HD will be assessed only in patients with psoriasis.

The barrier status by trans epidermal water loss of (non-)lesional skin and healthy skin will be determined using EIS.

LC-OCT is a non-invasive optical imaging technique based on a combination of the optical principles of optical coherence tomography and reflectance confocal microscopy with line-field illumination, which can generate cell-resolved images of the skin, in vivo, in vertical section, horizontal section and in three dimensions.

The cutaneous microcirculation of (non-)lesional skin sites and healthy skin will be monitored over a 40 second timespan with a laser speckle contrast imager.

The redness and superficial morphology of (non-)lesional skin sites and healthy skin will be determined using a 3D multispectral imaging system.

The redness and surface characteristics of (non-)lesional and healthy skin will be assessed using a colorimetry device that quantitatively measures skin color parameters, including erythema, based on reflected light.

Skin punch biopsies (4mm) will be taken from (non-)lesional skin and healthy for histology, tissue mass cytometry (CyTOF) and RNA-sequencing analysis.

A whole blood sample will be used to scan for common mutations in genes implicated in psoriasis using next-generation sequencing.

Subjects are requested to wear a smartwatch at all times which register sleep (hrs, minutes, seconds of rest)

Subjects are requested to wear a smartwatch at all times which register steps (amount of steps taken)

Subjects are requested to wear a smartwatch at all times which heart rate (beats per minute)

Blood will be drawn during using a venipuncture during visits and analyzed with RNAsequencing.

The Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI) is a validated patient-reported outcome measure that assesses the impact of skin diseases on patients' quality of life over the previous week. The total DLQI score ranges from 0 to 30, with higher scores indicating greater impairment in quality of life. A score of 0 reflects no impact, whereas 30 represents the most severe impact on quality of life.

The DLQI will be assessed in all patients across the included skin disease cohorts.

The Treatment Satisfaction Questionnaire for Medication (TSQM) is a validated patient-reported outcome measure designed to assess patients' satisfaction with their medication. The TSQM evaluates multiple domains including effectiveness, side effects, convenience, and overall satisfaction. Scores for each domain range from 0 to 100, with higher scores indicating greater satisfaction.

The TSQM will be assessed in all patients across the included skin disease cohorts.

The Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale (HADS) is a validated patient-reported outcome measure used to assess levels of anxiety and depression symptoms. It consists of two subscales: Anxiety (HADS-A) and Depression (HADS-D), each ranging from 0 to 21. Higher scores indicate greater severity of anxiety or depression symptoms.

The HADS will be assessed in all patients across the included skin disease cohorts.

The Numerical Rating Scale (NRS) for Pruritus and Burning Sensation/Pain are validated patient-reported outcome measures used to assess the intensity of itch and burning pain, respectively. Both scales range from 0 to 10, where 0 indicates no symptom and 10 represents the worst imaginable symptom. Higher scores correspond to greater symptom severity.

The NRS for pruritus and burning sensation/pain will be assessed in all patients across the included skin disease cohorts.

The 5-D Itch Scale is a patient-reported outcome measure designed to assess the multidimensional impact of pruritus (itching). It evaluates five domains: Duration, Degree, Direction, Disability, and Distribution of itch. The total score ranges from 5 to 25, with higher scores indicating greater severity and impact of itch. A score of 5 reflects no itch symptoms, whereas 25 represents the most severe and disabling itch experience.

The 5-D Itch Scale will be assessed in all patients.

The Chronic Skin Disease on Daily Life (ISDL) is a patient-reported outcome measure designed to evaluate the impact of chronic skin diseases on patients' daily lives. The total score ranges from 0 to 40, with higher scores indicating a greater negative impact on daily functioning and quality of life. A score of 0 reflects no impact, while 40 represents the most severe impairment.

The ISDL will be assessed in all patients.

The Itch Severity and Burden Questionnaire (ISBQ) is a validated patient-reported outcome measure designed to assess the psychosocial burden and emotional impact of chronic itch. The total score ranges from 0 to 20, with higher scores reflecting a greater negative impact on emotional wellbeing and daily functioning. A score of 0 indicates no emotional burden, while a score of 20 indicates a very high burden related to chronic itch.

The ISBQ will be assessed in all patients.

The Penn State Worry Questionnaire (PSWQ) is a validated patient-reported outcome measure designed to assess the tendency toward excessive, uncontrollable, and generalized worry, which is a key feature of generalized anxiety disorder but may also occur in other chronic conditions.

The total PSWQ score ranges from 16 to 80, with higher scores indicating greater levels of pathological worry. A score of 16 reflects minimal worry, while a score of 80 reflects a high tendency to worry excessively.

The PSWQ will be assessed in all patients.

The Impact of Chronic Skin Disease on Daily Life (ISDL) is a validated patient-reported outcome measure specifically designed to assess the impact of chronic skin conditions on various aspects of daily functioning and quality of life.

The ISDL consists of multiple domains, including symptoms, emotional burden, daily activities, social functioning, and treatment-related burden. The total score ranges from 0 to 100, with higher scores indicating a greater impact and thus a worse outcome.

The ISDL will be assessed in all patients.

The Expectancies and Avoidance Behaviour Questionnaire (G-EEE) is a validated patient-reported outcome measure used to assess symptom-related expectancies and avoidance behaviour in individuals with chronic skin conditions. The total score reflects the degree to which patients expect their symptoms to worsen due to certain triggers (e.g. scratching, sweating, stress) and the extent to which they engage in avoidance behaviour as a result. Higher scores indicate stronger avoidance behaviour and more negative symptom-related expectancies. The G-EEE will be assessed in all patient groups.

The Social Sensory Processing Questionnaire - Short Form (SPSQ-S) is a patient-reported outcome measure designed to assess individual sensitivity to sensory stimuli in social environments. It evaluates how patients perceive and react to social sensory input that may cause discomfort or stress. The questionnaire consists of a series of items scored on a Likert scale, with higher scores indicating greater sensitivity. The SPSQ-S will be assessed in all patient groups.

The Type D Personality Scale (DS-14) is a self-reported questionnaire used to identify the presence of a distressed personality type, characterized by high levels of negative affectivity and social inhibition. It consists of 14 items scored on a Likert scale, with higher scores indicating stronger Type D personality traits. The DS-14 will be assessed in all patient groups.

The Perceived Stress Scale (PSS) is a self-reported questionnaire designed to measure the perception of stress. It assesses how unpredictable, uncontrollable, and overloaded respondents find their lives. The PSS consists of 10 items scored on a Likert scale, with higher scores indicating higher perceived stress levels. The PSS will be assessed in all patient groups.

The P-Scale Short is a self-reported questionnaire measuring perceived stigma related to chronic illness. It consists of a brief set of items, with higher scores indicating greater experienced stigma. The P-Scale Short will be assessed in all patient groups.

The Self-Efficacy for Managing Chronic Disease (SEMCD) scale is a validated patient-reported outcome measure designed to assess an individual's confidence in their ability to manage symptoms, maintain function, and cope with the emotional and social consequences of chronic diseases. The SEMCD typically consists of multiple items rated on a numerical scale, with higher scores indicating greater self-efficacy and perceived ability to control one's chronic condition. This measure is important for understanding patient empowerment and adherence to treatment plans. The SEMCD will be assessed in all patient groups included in the study.

The Recap of Atopic Eczema (RECAP) is a validated patient-reported outcome measure designed to assess disease control over the past week in patients with atopic dermatitis. It consists of a concise set of questions that capture symptoms, impact on daily life, and treatment effectiveness. Scores range from 0 to 30, with higher scores indicating poorer disease control. The RECAP will be assessed only in patients with atopic dermatitis.

The Patient-Oriented Eczema Measure (POEM) is a validated patient-reported outcome measure used to assess the severity of atopic dermatitis symptoms over the past week. The questionnaire consists of seven items addressing the frequency of key symptoms such as itching, sleep disturbance, and skin dryness. POEM scores range from 0 to 28, with higher scores indicating more severe disease symptoms. The POEM will be assessed only in patients with atopic dermatitis.

The Angioedema Activity Score over 7 days (AAS7) is a validated patient-reported outcome measure that captures the severity and frequency of angioedema symptoms during the preceding week. Scores range from 0 to 105, with higher scores indicating greater disease activity and symptom burden. The AAS7 is used exclusively in patients with chronic spontaneous urticaria (CSU) who experience angioedema to monitor short-term disease activity and treatment response.

The Urticaria Activity Score over 7 days (UAS7) is a validated patient-reported outcome measure used to assess the severity and frequency of urticaria symptoms-specifically wheals (hives) and pruritus (itch)-over the previous week. Scores range from 0 to 42, with higher scores reflecting more severe disease activity. The UAS7 is applied exclusively in patients with chronic spontaneous urticaria (CSU) to monitor disease burden and evaluate treatment response.

The Urticaria Control Test (UCT) is a validated patient-reported outcome measure used to assess disease control in patients with chronic spontaneous urticaria (CSU). The total UCT score ranges from 0 to 16, with higher scores indicating better disease control. This questionnaire is used exclusively in patients with CSU to monitor treatment response and disease management over time.

The Hidradenitis Suppurativa Quality of Life (HiSQoL) questionnaire is a validated patient-reported outcome measure designed to assess the impact of hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) on patients' quality of life. The total HiSQoL score ranges from 0 to 66, with higher scores indicating greater impairment and worse quality of life. The questionnaire is specifically used in patients with HS to evaluate the burden of disease and monitor changes over time.