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| ID | Type | Description | Link |
|---|---|---|---|
| GU 156 | Other Identifier | Sarah Cannon Development Innovations, LLC | |
| 264471 | Other Identifier | Parexel International (IRL) Limited |
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This is an open-label Phase II modular study in participants with prostate cancer which will assess safety, efficacy, and tolerability of AZD4635 in combination with other therapeutic agents in different treatment arms (referred to as modules).
Combinations to be studied include: 1) Module 1: AZD4635 plus durvalumab; 2) Module 2: AZD4635 plus oleclumab.
This is an open-label Phase II modular study in participants with prostate cancer which will assess safety, efficacy, and tolerability of AZD4635 in combination with other therapeutic agents in different treatment arm (referred to as modules).
Combinations to be studied include: 1) Module 1: AZD4635 plus durvalumab; 2) Module 2: AZD4635 plus oleclumab.
All participants will be allocated into a module using an Interactive Web Response System (IWRS). Randomization will occur when patients meet eligibility criteria for two or more modules that are currently recruiting. If participants only meet the criteria for one currently recruiting module, they will be allocated to that module without randomization taking place.
The primary objective of the clinical study is to evaluate the efficacy of each combination therapy by: 1) assessing the objective response rate (ORR) of participants with measurable disease (response will be determined by Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumours [RECIST 1.1]); 2) assessing the prostate-specific antiget (PSA) confirmed response rate of each combination therapy (PSA confirmed response rate is defined as the proportion of participants with a reduction in the PSA level of ≥50% measured from baseline to the lowest post-baseline PSA result measured twice, at least 3 weeks apart by the Prostate Cancer Working Group 3 criteria [PCWG3]).
The safety endpoints include assessment of adverse events and serious adverse events, physical examinations, vital signs, and collection of clinical chemistry/hematology parameters
There will be approximately 30 PSA evaluable participants in each module, and approximately 20 participants will have RECIST measurable disease at baseline in each module. If any of the required participants for PSA and/or ORR are not evaluable for PSA response or tumor response, respectively, they may be replaced at the sponsor's discretion.
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| Label | Type | Description | Intervention Names |
|---|---|---|---|
| Module 1 (AZD4635 75 mg + Durvalumab 1500 mg) | Experimental | Participants will receive monotherapy of AZD4635 75 mg orally once daily (QD) for first 14 days and thereafter will continue to receive 75 mg orally QD in combination with durvalumab 1500 mg intravenously (IV) every 4 weeks (Q4W) until will derive clinical benefit as judged by the investigator, confirmed disease progression, unacceptable toxicity, started alternative anticancer therapy, withdrawal of consent, or lost to-follow-up, whichever occurs first. |
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| Module 2 (AZD4635 50 / 75 mg + Oleclumab 1500 mg) | Experimental | Participants will receive combination therapy of AZD4635 (50 mg / 75 mg orally QD) and oleclumab 1500 mg IV (every 2 weeks of 28-day cycle for the first 4 doses and Q4W thereafter) until will derive clinical benefit as judged by the investigator or until confirmed disease progression, unacceptable toxicity, started alternative anticancer therapy, withdrawal of consent, or lost to-follow-up, whichever occurs first. |
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| Name | Type | Description | Arm Group Labels | Other Names |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| AZD4635 | Drug | In Module 1, participants will receive AZD4635 75 mg capsule orally QD for first 14 days and thereafter will continue to receive 75 mg orally QD Q4W. In Module 2, participants will receive AZD4635 50 mg / 75 mg capsule orally QD Q2W of 28-day cycle for the first 4 doses and Q4W thereafter. In both modules, participants will receive treatment until will derive clinical benefit as judged by the investigator or until confirmed disease progression, unacceptable toxicity, started alternative anticancer therapy, withdrawal of consent, or lost to-follow-up, whichever occurs first. |
| Measure | Description | Time Frame |
|---|---|---|
| Percentage of Participants With Confirmed Objective Response Per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) Version 1.1 | The confirmed objective response is defined as confirmed complete response (CR) or confirmed partial response (PR) based on RECIST v1.1 guidelines, assessed by computed tomography (CT) scan/ magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan/ positron emission tomography (PET) scan and bone scan. The CR is defined as disappearance of all target and non-target lesions and no new lesions. The PR is defined as >= 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions compared to baseline and no new non-target lesion. A confirmed CR or PR is defined as 2 CRs or 2 PRs that were separated by at least 4 weeks with no evidence of progression in-between. | Baseline (Day -28) through end of study (last participant last visit) (approximately 22 months) |
| Percentage of Participants With Confirmed Prostate-specific Antigen (PSA) Response Per Prostate Cancer Working Group 3 (PCWG3) Criteria | A confirmed PSA response is defined as reduction in the PSA level of >= 50% from baseline to the lowest post-baseline PSA results, measured twice, at least 3 weeks apart by the PCWG3 criteria. | Baseline (Day -28) through end of study (last participant last visit) (approximately 22 months) |
| Measure | Description | Time Frame |
|---|---|---|
| Percentage of Participants With Radiological Progression Free Survival (rPFS) at 6 Months | The rPFS is defined as the time interval from the first dose of AZD4635 until the date of radiological disease progression (RECIST 1.1 for soft tissue lesions and PCWG3 criteria for bone lesions) or death (by any cause in the absence of progression) regardless of whether the participant withdrew from study therapy or received another anti-cancer therapy prior to progression. The progressive disease for soft lesions per RECIST 1.1 (assessed by CT/MRI/PET scan) is defined as at least a 20% increase in the sum of the longest diameter of target lesions, taking as reference the smallest sum in the study, the appearance of one or more new lesions, or unequivocal progression of existing non-target lesions. The progressive disease for bone lesions per PCWG3 is defined as at least 2 or more new metastatic bone lesions observed compared to baseline assessment (Day -28), with confirmation scan performed at least 6-week later. |
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Inclusion Criteria for all Patients in all Modules:
9. Ability to swallow and retain oral medication. 10. Must have life expectancy of at least 12 weeks 11. Body weight ≥ 35 kg at screening 12. Willingness to adhere to the study treatment-specific contraception requirements: Participants must be surgically sterile or using an acceptable method of contraception (defined as barrier methods in conjunction with spermicides) for the duration of the study (from the time they sign ICF) and for 3 months after the last dose of AZD4635 to prevent pregnancy in a female partner. Male participants must not donate or bank sperm for 24 weeks after treatment.
Inclusion Criteria for Modules 1 and 2:
Participants must have metastatic castrate resistant prostate cancer with histological or cytological confirmation. Participant may have bone-only metastatic disease.
Participants must have had either orchiectomy or be on luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonist or antagonist therapy with testosterone <50 ng/dL and agree to stay on LHRH agonist or antagonist therapy during the study
Participants must have previously received and progressed on ≥2 lines of approved systemic therapy for metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer (mCRPC), including a second generation hormonal agent (e.g, abiraterone, enzalutamide, or apalutamide)
Participants must have evidence of mCRPC that progressed within 6 months prior to screening according to one of the following:
Exclusion Criteria for all Participants in all Modules:
History or presence of another primary invasive malignancy except for: malignancy treated with curative intent and with no known active disease ≥2 years before the first dose of study drug and of low potential risk for recurrence; adequately treated non-melanoma skin cancer or lentigo maligna without evidence of disease; adequately treated carcinoma in situ without evidence of disease; localized non-invasive primary carcinoma under surveillance
Refractory nausea and vomiting, chronic gastrointestinal diseases, or previous significant small bowel resection that would preclude adequate absorption of AZD4635.
Previously untreated brain metastases. Participants who have received radiation or surgery for brain metastases are eligible if therapy was completed at least 21 days previously and there is no evidence of central nervous system (CNS) disease progression or mild neurologic symptoms.
With the exception of alopecia, lymphopenia, and hypothyroidism, any unresolved toxicities from prior therapy greater than National Cancer Institute Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (NCI CTCAE v5.0) Grade 1 at the time of starting study treatment
Participants with prior ≥ Grade 3, serious, or life threatening immune-mediated reactions following prior anti-PD-1, anti-PD-L1, or other immuno-oncology therapies.
Prior history of myocardial infarction, transient ischemic attack, or stroke in the last 3 months
Participants must have normotensive or well controlled blood pressure (<150/90), with or without current antihypertensive treatment. If there is a diagnosis or history of hypertension, participant must have adequately controlled blood pressure on antihypertensive medications, as demonstrated by 2 blood pressure measurements taken in the clinical setting by a medical professional within 1 week prior to enrollment. Patients on a hypertensive medication must be willing and able to measure and record blood pressure readings twice-daily for a minimum of 3 weeks.
As judged by the Investigator or Medical Monitor, any evidence of severe or uncontrolled systemic diseases, including active bleeding diatheses, or active infection including tuberculosis (clinical evaluation that includes clinical history, physical examination and radiographic findings, and tuberculosis testing in line with local practice), hepatitis B virus [known positive HBV surface antigen (HBsAg) result], hepatitis C, or human immunodeficiency virus (positive HIV 1/2 antibodies), or active hepatitis A. Participants with a past or resolved HBV infection (defined as the presence of hepatitis B core antibody [anti-HBc] and absence of HBsAg) are eligible. Participants positive for hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibody are eligible only if polymerase chain reaction is negative for HCV RNA. Screening for chronic conditions is not required.
Active or prior documented autoimmune or inflammatory disorders (including inflammatory bowel disease [e.g., colitis, Crohn's disease], diverticulitis, celiac disease, systemic lupus erythematous, Wegener's syndrome, myasthenia gravis, Grave's disease, rheumatoid arthritis, hypophysitis, uveitis, autoimmune pneumonitis, autoimmune nephritis or nephropathy, etc.) within the past 3 years prior to the start of treatment. The following are exceptions to this criterion: a) vitiligo or alopecia, b) hypothyroidism (e.g., following Hashimoto's disease) stable on hormone replacement, c) psoriasis or eczema not requiring systemic therapy for disease control, d) celiac disease controlled by diet alone.
Prior/concomitant therapy with AZD4635 or any other A2AR antagonist.
Ongoing corticosteroid use, at doses above physiologic replacement therapy. The following are exceptions to this criterion: a) use of intranasal, inhaled, topical orticosteroids, local steroid injections (e.g. intra-articular injections), b) steroids as premedication for hypersensitivity reactions (e.g. CT scan premedication) are permitted, c) systemic corticosteroids at physiologic doses below 10 mg/day of prednisone or equivalent.
The following intervals between the end of the prior treatment and first dose of study drug must be observed: a) anticancer therapy: ≥21 days or 5 half-lives (whichever is shorter) of the first dose of study drug. At least 7 days must have elapsed between the last dose of such agent and the first dose of study drug. (Exception: androgen-deprivation therapy is required to maintain castrate levels of testosterone (˂50 ng/dL), b) concurrent use of hormones for non-cancer-related conditions (e.g., insulin for diabetes and hormone replacement therapy) is acceptable.
Major surgery (as defined by the Medical Monitor, excluding placement of vascular access) within 4 weeks of the first dose of study treatment.
Minor surgical procedures (as defined by the Medical Monitor) within 7 days of the first dose of study treatment.
Participant is receiving medications or other products known to be sensitive breast cancer resistance protein (BCRP) or organic anion transporter polypeptide 1 (OATP1B1), OATP1B3, organic anionic transporter 1 (OAT1), organic cation transporter 1 (OCT1), OCT2, multidrug and toxin extrusion protein 1 (MATE1) and P glycoprotein (P-gp) substrates or potent or moderate inhibitors/inducers of CYP1A2, which cannot be discontinued 2 weeks prior to Day 1 of dosing and withheld throughout the study until 2 weeks after the last dose of AZD4635.
Concomitant medications with another A1R antagonist that would increase risk of seizure (e.g., theophylline, aminophylline).
Nitrosourea or mitomycin C within 6 weeks of the first dose of study treatment
Ongoing treatment with Coumadin
Receipt of live attenuated vaccine within 30 days prior to the first dose of study drug
Herbal preparations/medications are not allowed throughout the study, including but not limited to: St. John's wort, kava, ephedra (ma huang), ginkgo biloba, dehydroepiandrosterone, yohimbe, saw palmetto, and ginseng. Participants should stop using these herbal medications 7 days prior to the first dose of AZD4635. Exceptions may be agreed upon, but the circumstances must be reviewed by the Medical Monitor in advance.
Radiotherapy with a wide field of radiation within 4 weeks or radiotherapy with a limited field of radiation for palliation within 2 weeks, of the first dose of study treatment.
Enrollment into another therapeutic clinical trial. (Exception: Participants are allowed to participate in investigational imaging or non-interventional studies.)
History of hypersensitivity to AZD4635 or drugs with a similar chemical structure or class to AZD4635.
Any of the following cardiac criteria:
Inadequate bone marrow reserve or organ function as demonstrated by any of the following laboratory values:
Involvement in the planning and/or conduct of the study (applies to AstraZeneca staff and its representatives and/or staff at the study site).
Judgment by the Investigator or Medical Monitor that the participant should not participate in the study if the participant is unlikely to comply with study procedures, restrictions and requirements.
Participation in another clinical interventional study or if participant has already received at least one dose of study drug in the present study
Exclusion Criteria for Module 1:
Exclusion Criteria for Module 2:
This study will enroll only male participants because the condition being studied is metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer.
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| Facility | Status | City | State | ZIP | Country | Contacts |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Research Site | Denver | Colorado | 80218 | United States | ||
| Research Site |
| PubMed Identifier | Type | Citation | Retractions |
|---|---|---|---|
| 38430405 | Derived | Falchook GS, Reeves J, Gandhi S, Spigel DR, Arrowsmith E, George DJ, Karlix J, Pouliot G, Hattersley MM, Gangl ET, James GD, Thompson J, Russell DL, Patel B, Kumar R, Lim E. A phase 2 study of AZD4635 in combination with durvalumab or oleclumab in patients with metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer. Cancer Immunol Immunother. 2024 Mar 2;73(4):72. doi: 10.1007/s00262-024-03640-6. |
| Label | URL |
|---|---|
| Redacted CSR Synopsis | View source |
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Qualified researchers can request access to anonymized individual patient-level data from AstraZeneca group of companies sponsored clinical trials via the request portal. All request will be evaluated as per the AZ disclosure commitment:
https://astrazenecagrouptrials.pharmacm.com/ST/Submission/Disclosure
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AstraZeneca will meet or exceed data availability as per the commitments made to the EFPIA Pharma Data Sharing Principles. For details of our timelines, please rerefer to our disclosure commitment at https://astrazenecagrouptrials.pharmacm.com/ST/Submission/Disclosure.
When a request has been approved AstraZeneca will provide access to the de-identified individual patient-level data in an approved sponsored tool . Signed Data Sharing Agreement (non-negotiable contract for data accessors) must be in place before accessing requested information. Additionally, all users will need to accept the terms and conditions of the SAS MSE to gain access. For additional details, please review the Disclosure Statements at https://astrazenecagrouptrials.pharmacm.com/ST/Submission/Disclosure.
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| ID | Title | Description |
|---|---|---|
| FG000 | Module 1 (AZD4635 75 mg + Durvalumab 1500 mg) | Participants received monotherapy of AZD4635 75 mg orally once daily (QD) for first 14 days and thereafter continued to receive 75 mg orally QD in combination with durvalumab 1500 mg intravenously (IV) every 4 weeks (Q4W) until derived clinical benefit as judged by the investigator, confirmed disease progression, unacceptable toxicity, started alternative anticancer therapy, withdrawal of consent, or lost to-follow-up, whichever occurred first. |
| Title | Milestones | Reasons Not Completed | |||||
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Overall Study |
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| Type | Includes Protocol | Includes SAP | Includes ICF | Document Label | Document Date | Document Uploaded Date | Document File Name |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Prot | Yes | No | No | Study Protocol | Sep 28, 2022 | Mar 19, 2024 |
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| Oleclumab | Drug | In Module 2, participants will receive oleclumab 1500 mg IV (solution for infusion after dilution, 50 mg/mL) Q2W of 28-day cycle for the first 4 doses and Q4W thereafter until will derive clinical benefit as judged by the investigator or until confirmed disease progression, unacceptable toxicity, started alternative anticancer therapy, withdrawal of consent, or lost to-follow-up, whichever occurs first. |
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| Durvalumab | Drug | In Module 1 after monotherapy of AZD4635, participants will receive durvalumab 1500 mg IV (solution for infusion after dilution, 50 mg/mL) Q4W until will derive clinical benefit as judged by the investigator or until confirmed disease progression, unacceptable toxicity, started alternative anticancer therapy, withdrawal of consent, or lost to-follow-up, whichever occurs first. |
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| Baseline (Day -28) through end of study (last participant last visit) (approximately 22 months) |
| Duration of Response (DoR) | The DoR is defined as the time from the date of first documented response (confirmed CR/PR) until date of documented progression or death in the absence of disease progression. The CR is defined as disappearance of all target and non-target lesions and no new lesions. The PR is defined as >= 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions compared to baseline and no new non-target lesion. A confirmed CR or PR is defined as 2 CRs or 2 PRs that were separated by at least 4 weeks with no evidence of progression or not evaluable response in-between. The progressive disease is defined at least a 20% increase in the sum of the longest diameter of target lesions, taking as reference the smallest sum longest diameter recorded since the treatment started, the appearance of one or more new lesions, or unequivocal progression of existing non-target lesions. The DoR was estimated using Kaplan-Meier method. | Baseline (Day -28) through end of study (last participant last visit) (approximately 22 months) |
| Overall Survival (OS) | The OS is defined as the time from date of first study dose until the date of death due to any cause. The median of OS was estimated using Kaplan-Meier method and CI was derived based on Brookmeyer-Crowley method. | Baseline (Day -28) through end of study (last participant last visit) (approximately 22 months) |
| Number of Participants With Positive Anti-Drug Antibodies (ADA) to Durvalumab | The detection of the immunogenicity of monoclonal antibody to durvalumab was performed using a validated immunoassay method. Participants with positive ADA to durvalumab are reported. | Pre-dose on Day 1 of Cycles 1, 2, 4, and 7 and 90 days following the last dose of durvalumab (approximately 22 months) |
| Number of Participants With Positive ADA to Oleclumab | The detection of the immunogenicity of monoclonal antibody to oleclumab was performed using a validated immunoassay method. Participants with positive ADA to oleclumab are reported. | Pre-dose on Day 1 of Cycles 1, 3, 5, and every 12 weeks thereafter, and 90 days following the last dose of oleclumab (approximately 22 months) |
| Plasma Concentrations of AZD4635 and Its Metabolites (SSP-005173 and SSP-005174) | Plasma concentrations of AZD4635 and its metabolites (SSP-005173 and SSP-005174) are reported. | Predose on Day 1 of Cycle 7 |
| Plasma Concentration of Durvalumab | Plasma concentration of durvalumab is reported. | Predose and end of infusion on Day 1 of Cycle 7 |
| Plasma Concentration of Oleclumab | Plasma concentration of oleclumab is reported. | Predose and 10 minutes end of infusion on Day 1 of Cycle 14 |
| Number of Participants With Treatment Emergent Adverse Events (TEAEs) and Treatment Emergent Serious Adverse Events (TESAEs) | An AE is any untoward medical occurrence in a participant who received study drug without regard to possibility of causal relationship. A serious adverse event (SAE) is an AE resulting in any of the following outcomes or deemed significant for any other reason: death; initial or prolonged inpatient hospitalization; life threatening experience (immediate risk of dying); persistent or significant disability/incapacity; congenital anomaly. The TEAEs are defined as events present at baseline that worsened in intensity after administration of study drug or events absent at baseline that emerged after administration of study drug. | Day 1 through 90 days after the last dose of study drug (approximately 22 months) |
| Number of Participants With Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) Grade Change in Laboratory Parameters From Baseline to Grade 3 or More | Laboratory parameters included hematology, coagulation, clinical chemistry, and urinalysis. The CTCAE is a descriptive terminology is used for AE reporting. The CTCAE v5.0 displays Grades 1 through 5 with unique clinical descriptions of severity for each AE based on this general guideline: Grade 1 as mild AE, Grade 2 as moderate AE, Grade 3 as severe AE, Grade 4 as life-threatening or disabling AE, and Grade 5 as death related to AE. Participants with CTCAE v5.0 grade change in laboratory parameters from baseline (Day 1 before the start of study treatment) to Grade 3 or more are reported. | Baseline (Day 1) through 90 days after the last dose of study drug (approximately 22 months) |
| Number of Participants With Abnormal Vital Signs and Physical Examination Reported as TEAEs | Vital signs assessment included body temperature, respiration rate, pulse rate, blood pressure, and weight. Participants with abnormal vital signs and/or abnormal physical examination reported as TEAEs are reported. | Day 1 through 90 days after the last dose of study drug (approximately 22 months) |
| Fort Myers |
| Florida |
| 33916 |
| United States |
| Research Site | St. Petersburg | Florida | 33705 | United States |
| Research Site | West Palm Beach | Florida | 33401 | United States |
| Research Site | Decatur | Illinois | 62526 | United States |
| Research Site | New York | New York | 10032 | United States |
| Research Site | Durham | North Carolina | 27710 | United States |
| Research Site | Chattanooga | Tennessee | 37404 | United States |
| Research Site | Nashville | Tennessee | 37203 | United States |
| Related Info | View source |
| Related Info | View source |
| FG001 | Module 2 (AZD4635 50 / 75 mg + Oleclumab 1500 mg) | Participants received combination therapy of AZD4635 (50 mg / 75 mg orally QD) and oleclumab 1500 mg IV (every 2 weeks of 28-day cycle for the first 4 doses and Q4W thereafter) until derived clinical benefit as judged by the investigator or until confirmed disease progression, unacceptable toxicity, started alternative anticancer therapy, withdrawal of consent, or lost to-follow-up, whichever occurred first. |
| COMPLETED | Patients ongoing study treatment at data cut-off date |
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| NOT COMPLETED |
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Safety analysis set included all participants who received at least one dose of study drug.
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| ID | Title | Description |
|---|---|---|
| BG000 | Module 1 (AZD4635 75 mg + Durvalumab 1500 mg) | Participants received monotherapy of AZD4635 75 mg orally once daily (QD) for first 14 days and thereafter continued to receive 75 mg orally QD in combination with durvalumab 1500 mg intravenously (IV) every 4 weeks (Q4W) until derived clinical benefit as judged by the investigator, confirmed disease progression, unacceptable toxicity, started alternative anticancer therapy, withdrawal of consent, or lost to-follow-up, whichever occurred first. |
| BG001 | Module 2 (AZD4635 50 / 75 mg + Oleclumab 1500 mg) | Participants received combination therapy of AZD4635 (50 mg / 75 mg orally QD) and oleclumab 1500 mg IV (every 2 weeks of 28-day cycle for the first 4 doses and Q4W thereafter) until derived clinical benefit as judged by the investigator or until confirmed disease progression, unacceptable toxicity, started alternative anticancer therapy, withdrawal of consent, or lost to-follow-up, whichever occurred first. |
| BG002 | Total | Total of all reporting groups |
| Units | Counts |
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| Participants |
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| Title | Description | Population Description | Parameter Type | Dispersion Type | Unit of Measure | Calculate Percentage | Denominator Units Selected | Denominators | Classes | ||||||||||
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| Age, Continuous | Mean | Standard Deviation | Years |
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| Sex: Female, Male | Count of Participants | Participants |
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| Ethnicity (NIH/OMB) | Count of Participants | Participants |
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| Race (NIH/OMB) | Count of Participants | Participants |
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| Type | Title | Description | Population Description | Reporting Status | Anticipated Posting Date | Parameter Type | Dispersion Type | Unit of Measure | Calculate Percentage | Time Frame | Units Analyzed | Denominator Units Selected | Arm/Group Information | Denominators | Classes | Analyses | |||||||||||||||||||||||
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| Primary | Percentage of Participants With Confirmed Objective Response Per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) Version 1.1 | The confirmed objective response is defined as confirmed complete response (CR) or confirmed partial response (PR) based on RECIST v1.1 guidelines, assessed by computed tomography (CT) scan/ magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan/ positron emission tomography (PET) scan and bone scan. The CR is defined as disappearance of all target and non-target lesions and no new lesions. The PR is defined as >= 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions compared to baseline and no new non-target lesion. A confirmed CR or PR is defined as 2 CRs or 2 PRs that were separated by at least 4 weeks with no evidence of progression in-between. | Tumor response analysis set included all participants who received at least one dose of study drug and had a baseline tumor assessment and measurable disease at baseline. | Posted | Number | 95% Confidence Interval | Percentage of participants | Baseline (Day -28) through end of study (last participant last visit) (approximately 22 months) |
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| Primary | Percentage of Participants With Confirmed Prostate-specific Antigen (PSA) Response Per Prostate Cancer Working Group 3 (PCWG3) Criteria | A confirmed PSA response is defined as reduction in the PSA level of >= 50% from baseline to the lowest post-baseline PSA results, measured twice, at least 3 weeks apart by the PCWG3 criteria. | The PSA response analysis set included all participants who received at least one dose of study drug and had an abnormal baseline PSA data (>= 1 ng/mL). | Posted | Number | 95% Confidence Interval | Percentage of participants | Baseline (Day -28) through end of study (last participant last visit) (approximately 22 months) |
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| Secondary | Percentage of Participants With Radiological Progression Free Survival (rPFS) at 6 Months | The rPFS is defined as the time interval from the first dose of AZD4635 until the date of radiological disease progression (RECIST 1.1 for soft tissue lesions and PCWG3 criteria for bone lesions) or death (by any cause in the absence of progression) regardless of whether the participant withdrew from study therapy or received another anti-cancer therapy prior to progression. The progressive disease for soft lesions per RECIST 1.1 (assessed by CT/MRI/PET scan) is defined as at least a 20% increase in the sum of the longest diameter of target lesions, taking as reference the smallest sum in the study, the appearance of one or more new lesions, or unequivocal progression of existing non-target lesions. The progressive disease for bone lesions per PCWG3 is defined as at least 2 or more new metastatic bone lesions observed compared to baseline assessment (Day -28), with confirmation scan performed at least 6-week later. | Efficacy analysis set included all participants who received at least one dose of study drug and had a baseline tumor assessment. | Posted | Number | 95% Confidence Interval | Percentage of participants | Baseline (Day -28) through end of study (last participant last visit) (approximately 22 months) |
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| Secondary | Duration of Response (DoR) | The DoR is defined as the time from the date of first documented response (confirmed CR/PR) until date of documented progression or death in the absence of disease progression. The CR is defined as disappearance of all target and non-target lesions and no new lesions. The PR is defined as >= 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions compared to baseline and no new non-target lesion. A confirmed CR or PR is defined as 2 CRs or 2 PRs that were separated by at least 4 weeks with no evidence of progression or not evaluable response in-between. The progressive disease is defined at least a 20% increase in the sum of the longest diameter of target lesions, taking as reference the smallest sum longest diameter recorded since the treatment started, the appearance of one or more new lesions, or unequivocal progression of existing non-target lesions. The DoR was estimated using Kaplan-Meier method. | Tumor response analysis set included all participants who received at least one dose of study drug and had a baseline tumor assessment (Day -28) and measurable disease at baseline. Participants who had confirmed CR/PR were analyzed for this outcome measure. | Posted | Median | Inter-Quartile Range | Months | Baseline (Day -28) through end of study (last participant last visit) (approximately 22 months) |
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| Secondary | Overall Survival (OS) | The OS is defined as the time from date of first study dose until the date of death due to any cause. The median of OS was estimated using Kaplan-Meier method and CI was derived based on Brookmeyer-Crowley method. | Safety analysis set included all participants who received at least one dose of study drug. | Posted | Median | 95% Confidence Interval | Months | Baseline (Day -28) through end of study (last participant last visit) (approximately 22 months) |
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| Secondary | Number of Participants With Positive Anti-Drug Antibodies (ADA) to Durvalumab | The detection of the immunogenicity of monoclonal antibody to durvalumab was performed using a validated immunoassay method. Participants with positive ADA to durvalumab are reported. | Safety analysis set included all participants who received at least one dose of durvalumab and had at least one post dose ADA sample. | Posted | Count of Participants | Participants | Pre-dose on Day 1 of Cycles 1, 2, 4, and 7 and 90 days following the last dose of durvalumab (approximately 22 months) |
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| Secondary | Number of Participants With Positive ADA to Oleclumab | The detection of the immunogenicity of monoclonal antibody to oleclumab was performed using a validated immunoassay method. Participants with positive ADA to oleclumab are reported. | Safety analysis set included all participants who received at least one dose of oleclumab and had at least one post dose ADA sample. | Posted | Count of Participants | Participants | Pre-dose on Day 1 of Cycles 1, 3, 5, and every 12 weeks thereafter, and 90 days following the last dose of oleclumab (approximately 22 months) |
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| Secondary | Plasma Concentrations of AZD4635 and Its Metabolites (SSP-005173 and SSP-005174) | Plasma concentrations of AZD4635 and its metabolites (SSP-005173 and SSP-005174) are reported. | Pharmacokinetics (PK) analysis set included all participants who received at least one dose of AZD4635 and had at least 1 reportable PK concentration at Cycle 7. | Posted | Geometric Mean | Geometric Coefficient of Variation | ng/mL | Predose on Day 1 of Cycle 7 |
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| Secondary | Plasma Concentration of Durvalumab | Plasma concentration of durvalumab is reported. | The PK analysis set included all participants who received at least one dose of durvalumab and had at least 1 reportable PK concentration at Cycle 7. 'Number analyzed' denotes the number of participants evaluated for the specified time point. | Posted | Geometric Mean | Geometric Coefficient of Variation | ng/mL | Predose and end of infusion on Day 1 of Cycle 7 |
|
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| Secondary | Plasma Concentration of Oleclumab | Plasma concentration of oleclumab is reported. | The PK analysis set included all participants who received at least one dose of oleclumab and had at least 1 reportable PK concentration at Cycle 7. 'Number analyzed' denotes the number of participants evaluated for the specified time point. | Posted | Geometric Mean | Geometric Coefficient of Variation | mcg/mL | Predose and 10 minutes end of infusion on Day 1 of Cycle 14 |
|
| |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| Secondary | Number of Participants With Treatment Emergent Adverse Events (TEAEs) and Treatment Emergent Serious Adverse Events (TESAEs) | An AE is any untoward medical occurrence in a participant who received study drug without regard to possibility of causal relationship. A serious adverse event (SAE) is an AE resulting in any of the following outcomes or deemed significant for any other reason: death; initial or prolonged inpatient hospitalization; life threatening experience (immediate risk of dying); persistent or significant disability/incapacity; congenital anomaly. The TEAEs are defined as events present at baseline that worsened in intensity after administration of study drug or events absent at baseline that emerged after administration of study drug. | Safety analysis set included all participants who received at least one dose of study drug. | Posted | Count of Participants | Participants | Day 1 through 90 days after the last dose of study drug (approximately 22 months) |
| |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| Secondary | Number of Participants With Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) Grade Change in Laboratory Parameters From Baseline to Grade 3 or More | Laboratory parameters included hematology, coagulation, clinical chemistry, and urinalysis. The CTCAE is a descriptive terminology is used for AE reporting. The CTCAE v5.0 displays Grades 1 through 5 with unique clinical descriptions of severity for each AE based on this general guideline: Grade 1 as mild AE, Grade 2 as moderate AE, Grade 3 as severe AE, Grade 4 as life-threatening or disabling AE, and Grade 5 as death related to AE. Participants with CTCAE v5.0 grade change in laboratory parameters from baseline (Day 1 before the start of study treatment) to Grade 3 or more are reported. | Safety analysis set included all participants who received at least one dose of study drug. | Posted | Count of Participants | Participants | Baseline (Day 1) through 90 days after the last dose of study drug (approximately 22 months) |
| |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| Secondary | Number of Participants With Abnormal Vital Signs and Physical Examination Reported as TEAEs | Vital signs assessment included body temperature, respiration rate, pulse rate, blood pressure, and weight. Participants with abnormal vital signs and/or abnormal physical examination reported as TEAEs are reported. | Safety analysis set included all participants who received at least one dose of study drug. | Posted | Count of Participants | Participants | Day 1 through 90 days after the last dose of study drug (approximately 22 months) |
|
Day 1 through 90 days after the last dose of study drug (approximately 22 months)
Not provided
Not provided
| ID | Title | Description | Deaths (Affected) | Deaths (At Risk) | Serious Events (Affected) | Serious Events (At Risk) | Other Events (Affected) | Other Events (At Risk) |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| EG000 | Module 1 (AZD4635 75 mg + Durvalumab 1500 mg) | Participants received monotherapy of AZD4635 75 mg orally once daily (QD) for first 14 days and thereafter continued to receive 75 mg orally QD in combination with durvalumab 1500 mg intravenously (IV) every 4 weeks (Q4W) until derived clinical benefit as judged by the investigator, confirmed disease progression, unacceptable toxicity, started alternative anticancer therapy, withdrawal of consent, or lost to-follow-up, whichever occurred first. | 12 | 29 | 6 | 29 | 27 | 29 |
| EG001 | Module 2 (AZD4635 50 / 75 mg + Oleclumab 1500 mg) | Participants received combination therapy of AZD4635 (50 mg / 75 mg orally QD) and oleclumab 1500 mg IV (every 2 weeks of 28-day cycle for the first 4 doses and Q4W thereafter) until derived clinical benefit as judged by the investigator or until confirmed disease progression, unacceptable toxicity, started alternative anticancer therapy, withdrawal of consent, or lost to-follow-up, whichever occurred first. | 11 | 30 | 8 | 30 | 28 | 30 |
| Term | Organ System | Source Vocabulary | Assessment Type | Notes | Statistical Information |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Acute kidney injury | Renal and urinary disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Haematuria | Renal and urinary disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Acute respiratory failure | Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Pneumonitis | Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Abdominal pain | Gastrointestinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Gastrointestinal haemorrhage | Gastrointestinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Pancreatitis | Gastrointestinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Cholecystitis | Hepatobiliary disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Covid-19 | Infections and infestations | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Cardiac arrest | Cardiac disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Urinary tract infection | Infections and infestations | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Hip fracture | Injury, poisoning and procedural complications | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Ischaemic cardiomyopathy | Cardiac disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Myocardial infarction | Cardiac disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Dehydration | Metabolism and nutrition disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Back pain | Musculoskeletal and connective tissue disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Adenocarcinoma of colon | Neoplasms benign, malignant and unspecified (incl cysts and polyps) | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Spinal cord compression | Nervous system disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
|
| Term | Organ System | Source Vocabulary | Assessment Type | Notes | Statistical Information |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Eye pain | Eye disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Agitation | Psychiatric disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Anxiety | Psychiatric disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Confusional state | Psychiatric disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Depression | Psychiatric disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Hallucination | Psychiatric disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Insomnia | Psychiatric disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Chronic kidney disease | Renal and urinary disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Dysuria | Renal and urinary disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Haematuria | Renal and urinary disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Vitreous floaters | Eye disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Proteinuria | Renal and urinary disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Urinary retention | Renal and urinary disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Prostatic pain | Reproductive system and breast disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Cough | Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Dyspnoea | Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Epistaxis | Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Haemoptysis | Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Hypoxia | Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Nasal congestion | Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Abdominal discomfort | Gastrointestinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Pneumothorax | Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Pulmonary embolism | Respiratory, thoracic and mediastinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Dermatitis | Skin and subcutaneous tissue disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Hyperhidrosis | Skin and subcutaneous tissue disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Pruritus | Skin and subcutaneous tissue disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Rash | Skin and subcutaneous tissue disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Rash maculo-papular | Skin and subcutaneous tissue disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Skin ulcer | Skin and subcutaneous tissue disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Embolism | Vascular disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Abdominal distension | Gastrointestinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Flushing | Vascular disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Hot flush | Vascular disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Hypertension | Vascular disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Hypotension | Vascular disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Thrombosis | Vascular disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Abdominal pain | Gastrointestinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Abdominal pain upper | Gastrointestinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Constipation | Gastrointestinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Diarrhoea | Gastrointestinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Dyspepsia | Gastrointestinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Eructation | Gastrointestinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Anaemia | Blood and lymphatic system disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Gastrooesophageal reflux disease | Gastrointestinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Haemorrhoidal haemorrhage | Gastrointestinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Haemorrhoids | Gastrointestinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Nausea | Gastrointestinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Oral pain | Gastrointestinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Vomiting | Gastrointestinal disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Asthenia | General disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Chills | General disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Thrombocytopenia | Blood and lymphatic system disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Fatigue | General disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Gait disturbance | General disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Infusion site extravasation | General disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Localised oedema | General disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Mucosal inflammation | General disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Non-cardiac chest pain | General disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Oedema peripheral | General disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Pain | General disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Pyrexia | General disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Atrial fibrillation | Cardiac disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Cholelithiasis | Hepatobiliary disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Hepatic pain | Hepatobiliary disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Cellulitis | Infections and infestations | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Cystitis | Infections and infestations | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Gingivitis | Infections and infestations | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Rash pustular | Infections and infestations | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Respiratory tract infection | Infections and infestations | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Sinusitis | Infections and infestations | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Skin infection | Infections and infestations | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Tooth infection | Infections and infestations | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Urinary tract infection | Infections and infestations | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Contusion | Injury, poisoning and procedural complications | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Muscle injury | Injury, poisoning and procedural complications | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Postoperative delirium | Injury, poisoning and procedural complications | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Procedural pain | Injury, poisoning and procedural complications | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Skin laceration | Injury, poisoning and procedural complications | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Alanine aminotransferase increased | Investigations | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Amylase increased | Investigations | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Aspartate aminotransferase increased | Investigations | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Blood alkaline phosphatase increased | Investigations | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Blood creatinine increased | Investigations | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Blood lactate dehydrogenase increased | Investigations | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| International normalised ratio increased | Investigations | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Lipase increased | Investigations | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Urine output decreased | Investigations | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Weight decreased | Investigations | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Cachexia | Metabolism and nutrition disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Decreased appetite | Metabolism and nutrition disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Dehydration | Metabolism and nutrition disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Hyperglycaemia | Metabolism and nutrition disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Hyperkalaemia | Metabolism and nutrition disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Hyperphosphataemia | Metabolism and nutrition disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Hyperuricaemia | Metabolism and nutrition disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Hypocalcaemia | Metabolism and nutrition disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Hypokalaemia | Metabolism and nutrition disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Hypomagnesaemia | Metabolism and nutrition disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Vitamin b12 deficiency | Metabolism and nutrition disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Arthralgia | Musculoskeletal and connective tissue disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Sinus tachycardia | Cardiac disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Back pain | Musculoskeletal and connective tissue disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Bone pain | Musculoskeletal and connective tissue disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Muscle spasms | Musculoskeletal and connective tissue disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Muscular weakness | Musculoskeletal and connective tissue disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Musculoskeletal chest pain | Musculoskeletal and connective tissue disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Myalgia | Musculoskeletal and connective tissue disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Pain in extremity | Musculoskeletal and connective tissue disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Tendonitis | Musculoskeletal and connective tissue disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Tumour pain | Neoplasms benign, malignant and unspecified (incl cysts and polyps) | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Vertigo | Ear and labyrinth disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Dizziness | Nervous system disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Dizziness postural | Nervous system disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Dysgeusia | Nervous system disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Headache | Nervous system disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Hypoaesthesia | Nervous system disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Metabolic encephalopathy | Nervous system disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Peripheral sensory neuropathy | Nervous system disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Spinal cord compression | Nervous system disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Transient ischaemic attack | Nervous system disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
| |
| Tremor | Nervous system disorders | MedDRA 24.0 | Systematic Assessment |
|
MedImmune has 60 days to review results communications prior to public release and may delete information that compromises ongoing studies or is considered proprietary. This restriction is not intended to compromise the objective scientific integrity of the manuscript, it being understood that results shall be published regardless of outcome.
| Title | Organization | Phone | Extension | |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Global Clinical Lead | AstraZeneca Clinical Study Information Center | 1-877-240-9479 | information.center@astrazeneca.com |
| Prot_005.pdf |
| SAP | No | Yes | No | Statistical Analysis Plan | Nov 8, 2021 | Mar 19, 2024 | SAP_006.pdf |
| ID | Term |
|---|---|
| D011471 | Prostatic Neoplasms |
| ID | Term |
|---|---|
| D005834 | Genital Neoplasms, Male |
| D014565 | Urogenital Neoplasms |
| D009371 | Neoplasms by Site |
| D009369 | Neoplasms |
| D005832 | Genital Diseases, Male |
| D000091662 | Genital Diseases |
| D000091642 | Urogenital Diseases |
| D011469 | Prostatic Diseases |
| D052801 | Male Urogenital Diseases |
Not provided
Not provided
| ID | Term |
|---|---|
| C000613593 | durvalumab |
Not provided
Not provided
Not provided
| Male |
|
| Not Hispanic or Latino |
|
| Unknown or Not Reported |
|
| Asian |
|
| Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander |
|
| Black or African American |
|
| White |
|
| More than one race |
|
| Unknown or Not Reported |
|
|
|
| OG001 | Module 2 (AZD4635 50 / 75 mg + Oleclumab 1500 mg) | Participants received combination therapy of AZD4635 (50 mg / 75 mg orally QD) and oleclumab 1500 mg IV (every 2 weeks of 28-day cycle for the first 4 doses and Q4W thereafter) until derived clinical benefit as judged by the investigator or until confirmed disease progression, unacceptable toxicity, started alternative anticancer therapy, withdrawal of consent, or lost to-follow-up, whichever occurred first. |
|
|
| OG001 | Module 2 (AZD4635 50 / 75 mg + Oleclumab 1500 mg) | Participants received combination therapy of AZD4635 (50 mg / 75 mg orally QD) and oleclumab 1500 mg IV (every 2 weeks of 28-day cycle for the first 4 doses and Q4W thereafter) until derived clinical benefit as judged by the investigator or until confirmed disease progression, unacceptable toxicity, started alternative anticancer therapy, withdrawal of consent, or lost to-follow-up, whichever occurred first. |
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
Participants received combination therapy of AZD4635 (50 mg / 75 mg orally QD) and oleclumab 1500 mg IV (every 2 weeks of 28-day cycle for the first 4 doses and Q4W thereafter) until derived clinical benefit as judged by the investigator or until confirmed disease progression, unacceptable toxicity, started alternative anticancer therapy, withdrawal of consent, or lost to-follow-up, whichever occurred first. |
|
|
Participants received combination therapy of AZD4635 (50 mg / 75 mg orally QD) and oleclumab 1500 mg IV (every 2 weeks of 28-day cycle for the first 4 doses and Q4W thereafter) until derived clinical benefit as judged by the investigator or until confirmed disease progression, unacceptable toxicity, started alternative anticancer therapy, withdrawal of consent, or lost to-follow-up, whichever occurred first. |
|
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